This weekend I posted some of Karl Barth’s thoughts on the creedal phrase concerning Christ’s descent into hell which follows the normal Reformed line on this issue. Today, I came across a post that I found interesting over at the much beloved Internet Monk site dealing with this doctrine as well. He examines the issue from the perspective that some evangelicals want to tinker with the creed and excise this line; I mentioned this briefly in my own post. After sketching the contrary evangelical positions he concludes with the following lines presenting his own view:
Or, more succinctly, hear Luther: “Through Christ, hell has been torn to pieces and the devil’s kingdom and power utterly destroyed…”
Now Luther was completely honest in saying he could not conceive how this actually occurred. However, he encouraged this: “It is appropriate and right that we view it literally, just as it is painted, that He descends with the banner, shattering and destroying the gates of hell; and we should put aside thoughts that are too deep and incomprehensible for us.”“
There is something evocative and powerful about the imaginative construals of many Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox thinkers that portray a literal harrowing of hell by Christ (see the link at the top of the Internet Monk’s post; he presents the positions well). For now I’m not ready to abandon my Reformed moorings, but I am open to examining the biblical evidence that undergirds the RCC and EO positions.
How are we to understand the scriptural texts that are utilized by both literalists and non-literalists on this topic? What would the original readers have taken away from the text? Context is key here in understanding the biblical text and as impetus for reexamination of Reformed views; the Reformed must take into account Calvin’s disdain for any speculation whatsoever as well as his corollary use of Ockham’s razor in his theological formulations. Have these latter facets overwhelmed the true intentions of the biblical text?
Where do you land on this issue? What interpretive tradition do you come from? What part does Christ’s “harrowing of hell” play in the biblical narrative for you? What has been the most convincing argument one way or the other for you?
I’m very interested to hear where people fall on this issue…



